Quiz

Question :1 Gene is most commonly mutated in high-grade muscle invasive urothelial cancer?

Cyclin A
TP53
FGFR-3
HRAS

Question :2 Peyronie’s disease is due to

Fibrosis of Buck’s fascia
Fibrosis of tunica albuginea
Fibrosis of Dartos fascia
Fibrosis of corpora

Question :3 Serum metabolic pattern that occurs most often after gastrocystoplasty is:

Hypochloremic metabolic acidosis
Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
Hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis

Question :4 Drugs to be avoided during surgery for pheochromocytoma are the following except

Propofol
Propranolol
Halothane
Tubocurarine

Question :5 Common denominator in all cases of Denys-Drash syndrome is

Gonadoblastoma
Nephropathy with early-onset proteinuria
Wilms tumor
Calyceal blunting

Question :6 All the following are classic findings on triphasic CT associated with UPJ disruption Except

Absence of parenchymal laceration
Medial extravasation of contrast in perirenal and upper ureteral area
No visualization of the ipsilateral distal ureter
Presence of parenchymal laceration

Question :7 Patient sustaining renal arterial trauma clinical triad includes all except

Hemodynamic instability
Warm ischemic time
Inadequate collateral blood flow
Cold ischemic time

Question :8 In patients sustaining a UPJ disruption, ___% will have a completely normal urinalysis

10
30
20
40

Question :9 Absolute indications for bladder imaging following abdominal trauma include

Ability to void
Gross hematuria alone
Pelvic fracture alone
Presence of gross hematuria with pelvic fracture

Question :10 Improtant predictors of Improved survival of clear cell sarcoma of kidney include all Except

Lower stage
Younger age at diagnosis
Treatment with doxorubicin
Presence of tumor necrosis

Question :11 Angiomyolipoma is seen with ____% of TSC patients

50
80
90
70

Question :12 Most common bladder abnormality associated with End stage renal disease is

Low capacity hypotonic bladder with poor compliance
Low capacity hypertonic bladder with good compliance
High capacity hypotonic bladder with poor compliance
High capacity hypertonic bladder with good compliance

Question :13 Failure of Shock wave lithotripsy & re treatment rates are associated with all except

Increased mean stone burden
Increased infundibular length
Infundibulopelvic angle greater than 45 degrees
Reduced infundibular length

Question :14 Which of the following is not developed properly in Vaginal atresia?

Uterus
Cervix
Upper portion of Vagina
Lower portion of vagina

Question :15 All the following statements are true about Prune belly syndrome except

Also called as Eagle barrett syndrome
Incidence of PBS is 1 in 29,000 to 1 in 40,000 live births
95% occurs in males
Higher incidence is noted in twins, blacks, and children born to older mothers

Question :16 Which of the following is not an advantage of retropubic prostatectomy over suprapubic approach?

Excellent anatomic exposure of prostate
Precise transaction of the urethra distally
Poor visualization of prostatic fossa
Direct visualization of prostatic adenoma during enucleation

Question :17 All are true regarding circumcision except:

Hemorrhage due to bleeding from frenular artery
Increase sexual drive
Avoid correction of congenital anomaly
Reduces sexually transmitted infections

Question :18 Order of correction of Hypospadias:

Straightening of penis–Balanoplasty–Urethroplasty
Urethroplasty–Balanoplasty–Straightening
Straightening–Urethroplasty–Balanoplasty
Balanoplasty–Urethroplasty–Straightening

Question :19 A 35-year-old male came to hospital with dysuria and pus cells on examination. Urine culture came negative (sterile pyuria). After few hours patient deteriorated suddenly and died due to renal failure. Gross autopsy pictures of kidney shown. Family history renal disease present. What is the diagnosis?

Renal cell cancer
Renal tuberculosis
Cystic renal disease
Metastasis

Question :20 According to Weigert Meyer rule of duplication of ureter, the lower pole ureter in urinary bladder is:

Lateral and cephalad to the upper pole ureter
Lateral and caudal to the upper pole ureter
Medial and cephlad to the upper pole ureter
Medial and caudal to the upper pole ureter

Question :21 Sickle cell anaemia is associated with which type of RCC:

Medullary
Papillary
Chromophobe
Colloid

Question :22 Indication for circumcision in children

Phimosis
Non-retractable prepuce in a 3 month old baby
Nocturnal enuresis
Severe diaper rash

Question :23 A 12 year old bicyclist, suddenly applies brake and lands on his perineum on the cross bar of bicycle. On an attempt to urinate he develops marked swelling of the scrotum. Structure most probably injured is

Bladder
Bulbous urethra
Prostatic urethra
Testicular artery

Question :24 A child presents with abdominal mass with stippled calcification. Most probable diagnosis is

Neuroblastoma
Reduplication cyst of the gut
Hydronephrosis due to urethral valves
Hydronephrosis due to urethral valves

Question :25 Gold standard investigation for detection of cortical renal scarring and function in a patient with recurrent UTI

99 Tc-MDP
99 Tc-MIBG
99 Tc-DTPA
Tc- DMSA

Question :26 Main determinants of uric acid stone formation include all except

Low pH
Low urine volume
Hyperuricosuria
Low animal protein intake

Question :27 Which is not true regarding vasectomy

Technique employed for occlusion of vasal lumen determines the incidence of recanalisation
Adequate counseling
Any technique of Vasectomy is 100% effective in rendering the patient sterile
Hematoma is commonest complication

Question :28 Low risk for development of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis after contrast MRI in patients with:

Obstructive uropathy
Normal renal function
Diabetic nephropathy
Ischemic nephropathy

Question :29 Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Adrenal medulla produces catecholamines in response to stimulation from sympathetic nervous system
Zona glomerulosa produces aldosterone in response to angiotensin II
Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex produces glucocorticoids in response to ACTH
Zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex produces androgens in response to LH

Question :30 Histologic Hallmark in renal dysplasia is

Presence of Blastemal cells
Presence of cystic dilatation of distal tubule
Presence of primitive ducts
No renal elements

Question :31 Basic criteria for a renal donor are the following except

Absence of renal disease
Absence of active infection
Absence of transmissible malignancy
Positive cross match

Question :32 Which of the following is not a recommendation for Pretransplant Nephrectomy

Renal stones not cleared by minimally invasive techniques or lithotripsy
Cystic renal tumors with or without Acquired cystic disease
Recurrent pyelonephritis
Grade 4/5 hydronephrosis

Question :33 Which of the following is not a criteria for Ideal deceased kidney donor?

Normal renal function
Associated with acceptable urinalysis
Associated with already treated superficial skin cancer
Negative assay for HIV

Question :34 Initial goal of resuscitation of brain dead deceased donor include all except

Systolic BP of 90 mm Hg
Mean arterial pressure of 60 mm Hg
Urine output >0.5 mL/kg/hr
None of the above

Question :35 Most common presentation of germ cell tumor is

Distant metastasis
Localized seminoma
Mediatinal lymphadenopathy
Any of the above

Question :36 Venous causes of ureteral obstruction are the following except

Puerperal ovarian vein thrombophl ebitis
Circumcaval ureter
Testicular vein thrombophlebitis
Renal vein thrombosis

Question :37 Renal carbuncle is collection of purulent material

Confined to collecting system
Confined to renal parenchyma
Confined to renal capsule
Confined to Gerota’s fascia

Question :38 Hematuria Dysuria syndrome occurs as

Interstitial cystitis
After gastrocystoplasty
Radiation cystitis
Carcinoma In Situ of Bladder

Question :39 Precalyceal canalicular ectasia is

Medullary sponge kidney
Extra renal calyces
Megacalicosis
Calyceal diverticulum

Question :40 Picture depicts a diagrammatic representation of ____ technique of TURP

Nesbit
Milner
Eaton & Francis
Mauermeyer

Question :41 Retrocaval ureter occurs because of

Situs inversus totalis
Persistance of Subcardinal vein
Defective development of ureter
Persistance of supra cardinal vein

Question :42 Foleys YV plasty in hydronephrosis is

Used for long narrow ureteric segment
Used when ureteric insertion into pelvis is low
Type of dismembered pyeloplasty
Non dismembered pyeloplasty

Question :43 Peak urethral pressure corresponds to

Bladder neck
Prostatic urethra
Striated sphincter
Bulbar urethra

Question :44 Michealis Gutman bodies are seen in

Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
Malakoplakia
Urothelial cancer
Polycystic kidney disease

Question :45 Which layers of the scrotum and testicular tunics are debrided in patients with Fournier gangrene?

Scrotal skin only
Scrotal skin and dartos layer
Scrotal skin, dartos layer, and external spermatic fascia
Scrotal skin, dartos layer, and external cremasteric and internal spermatic fasciae, leaving tunica vaginalis intact

Question :46 Vasodilator substances control renal artery tone except

Endothelin
Nitric oxide
Prostaglandin E2
Glucocorticoids

Question :47 Most commonly mutated gene in Genitourinary cancer is

K ras
P53
N ras
MIC 2

Question :48 Risk of Malignancy in type 3 Bosnaik renal cysts is

0%
5%
50%
100%

Question :49 True about Spermatocytic seminoma is

Seen generally in older men
Express placental alkaline phosphatase
Metastatic potential is high
Secretes high amount of AFP

Question :50 AMICO CRITERIA for risk categorization in prostatic cancer includes all except:

Blood PSA level
Gleason grade
T stage
PSA velocity

Question :51 Renal cell carcinoma with poor prognosis is

Clear cell carcinoma
Papillary carcinoma
Chromophobe carcinoma
Collecting duct carcinoma

Question :52 A 25-year-old male presented with painless testicular swelling and with history of fever and weight loss. All the following investigations are indicated in this patient except:

USG scrotum
CT abdomen and pelvis
Chest X-ray
Transscrotal biopsy

Question :53 Sipuleucel T vaccine recently approved by FDA in treatment of:

Renal cancer
Bladder cancer
Testicular cancer
Prostate cancer

Question :54 In prostate cancer, mechanism of action of ketoconazole is:

Androgen receptor antagonist
GnRH receptor antagonist
GnRH receptor agonist
Adrenal ablation

Question :55 Renal cell carcinoma involving adrenal gland is staged according to AJCC 8th edition is

I
II
III
IV

Question :56 Indication for bone scan in carcinoma prostate

PSA >20ng/ml and biopsy Gleason score >7
T3 & T4 Stage
Symptoms Suggestive of metastatic disease
All of the above

Question :57 Next line management in patients with <4cm incidentaloma with benign imaging features is

Repeat imaging in 3-6 months
Biochemical evaluation annually
Adrenalectomy
Both A & B

Question :58 Duplex ultrasonography of the penis is a reliable diagnostic test when

Combining intracavernous pressure measurements
Assessing intrapenile vascular communications
Combining pharmacostimulation
Assessing penile and suprapubic penile flow velocities